State of Adultry

by Jason Deines

in Questions & Answers

Submitted by Michael B

If your divorce was for a non-bibical reason and you re-marry are you in a state of adultry or have you comitted adultry?


{ 1 comment… read it below or add one }

1 Jason

I took this paragraph off gotquestions.org and I think it explains things really well.

A person who gets a divorce for a reason other than the reasons listed in the bible, and then gets remarried has committed adultery (Luke 16:18). The question then becomes, is this remarriage an “act” of adultery, or a “state” of adultery. The present tense of the Greek in Matthew 5:32; 19:9; and Luke 16:18 can indicate a continuous state of adultery. At the same time, the present tense in Greek does not always indicate continuous action. Sometimes it simply means that something occurred (Aoristic, Punctiliar, or Gnomic present). For example, the word “divorces” in Matthew 5:32 is present tense, but divorcing is not a continual action. It is our view that remarriage, no matter the circumstances, is not a continual state of adultery. Only the act of getting remarried itself is adultery.

I think the most important thing to remember is that God loves you and adultery can happen in a person’s heart, that seems to be where it starts. The bible talks about forgiveness of sin and that there is one unforgivable sin and that is blasphemy of the Holy Spirit… today that is basically denying Christ. That being said I think that if you were to get remarried and it was a sin then you ask for forgiveness, receive His forgiveness, and make the best Christ-centered marriage you can.

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